S-Corporation distributions in excess of Shareholder Basis
If a shareholder of an S-corporation has distributions in excess of the calculated basis how is the cpaital transaction reported on Form 1040.

If a shareholder of an S-corporation has distributions in excess of the calculated basis how is the cpaital transaction reported on Form 1040.

It's a capital gain. I'd just enter directly on Sch D, with the description "S Distributions in excess of basis."

If the S-Corporation distribution in excess of basis is reported on schedule D Form 1040, is a 1099 required to be filed by the corporation?

I'm no expert on 1099's, but my general policy is, you can't go wrong by filing one.


It should actually be reported as a capital gain distribution. i enter it on schedule B and put the full amount under capital gain distributions.



beridox,
I respectfully disagree. Distributions in excess of basis is considered "Sale of stock" by the IRS reportable on Sch D. There are no "capital gains" from this transaction inside the S Corp to report as a "capital gain distribution". If you have some authoritative documentation on this please let me know.

How would you determine if the gain is long term or short term. Also, how would you label the transaction on schedule D: i.e. "Dist in excess of basis" or just list the S-Corp's name on the line item.


CoyCPA, you are correct on the reporting of the excess distributions as a sale of stock. However, what accounting entry do you make on the company books to reflect the excess distributions? Assume that they have 0 capital left and 0 loans from shareholders.



I totally understand the confusion here, I even have it too at times, then I have to get out the ole "journal entry" analysis to fix it in my head. Let's do that here with a simple example and see the effect on S/H Basis, AAA, Bal Sheet accts, and the 1040. I hope I can do this here w/o making somebody mad for my large post.
Let's assume the S Corp is 100% owned, has no other balances, starts business 01/01/08. Has Sales of $100, no expenses, takes a loan out for $1,000, and takes Distributions for $1,100. Journal entries are:
Sales: $100 (Debit) Cash 100 (Credit) Sales (RE) 100
Loan: $1,000 (Debit) Cash 1,000 (Credit) Note Payable 1000
Now the Balance Sheet at this point looks like this:
Cash 1,100 N/P 1,000 RE 100
S/H Basis looks like this: +100 (from Net Profit)
AAA account looks like this: +100 (from Net Profit)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Then he goes and takes a $1,100 Distribution:
(Debit) Distributions or RE 1,100 (Credit) Cash 1,100
Now the Bal Sheet looks like this: Cash 0 N/P 1,000 RE -1,000
AAA account looks like this: Beg 100 minus Distribution -100 = 0 Balance
(AAA is reduced by S/H Distributions but only to zero, net losses can reduce AAA below 0)
S/H Basis looks like this: Beg Bal 100 minus 100 = 0
(Basis cannot be reduced below 0)
What do we do with that excess 1,000 of distribution below 0? It didn't reflect in the AAA to reduce it below 0 nor did it reflect in the S/H Basis to reduce it below 0. It shows on the personal return Form 1040 Sch D as a "sale of stock" listed as "Dist in excess of basis" and a Capital gain of $1,000. It does NOT affect basis, ie: he still has a 0 basis. I think this is where alot of the confusion comes in, ie: not being able to reduce basis below zero.........yes, I guess you could say his basis is restored to 0 but you didn't take it to a negative anyway so it's irrelevant.
This basically describes the sitiuation that I am in at the moment. I am in the process of preparing my 1120 S and I don't know where to show the excess distribution. Does it show up as negative retained earnings in Schedule M-2?



I'd like to add a couple of things here.
1. The "Other Adjustments Account" will NOT be used if the S Corp was never a C Corp. Only if the Corporation had been a prior C Corp with AE&P (accumulated earnings and profits)
2. The AAA account belongs to the Corporation not the Shareholders.
3. Net losses CAN take the AAA below -0- but NOT S/H Distributions.
4. Retained Earnings CAN be negative.
The example above is EXACTLY what we all face with our clients that causes us nightmares....ie: they suck the cash out of their S Corps that's not really proper to suck out.....ie: above the Shareholder in effect took money out of the Corporation that came from where????? THE LOAN!!!!! The results:............the IRS wants that money taxed as an "arms length" transaction of receiving money from an entity separate from the S/H personally and rightfully so.


The situation you described is exactly the one I was referring to, where the taxpayer took cash out from a refinance of his building, but there aren't enough earnings in the corporation to take the distributions out of. So you are saying that you are going to debit retained earnings for the excess? I suppose you would have to do an override in Pro Series because the program won't let you reduce AAA below zero due to distributions and in turn RE on the balance sheeet wouldn't go below zero because of distributions. BTW, I have recorded the excess distributions in the past as "Capital Gains Distributions" as a negative adjustment to equity in Pro Series and it just sits on the books indefinitely.



Remember you won't over-ride the AAA because it can NOT go below zero by definition. You will probably have to over-ride Retained Earnings in Proseries on your Balance Sheet. The next important thing is adjusting the S/H basis proper which will probably be zero. The part the client isn't going to like is reporting the excess distributions over basis on his 1040 Sch D, but it's got to be done!!!! Maybe next time he'll pay more attention that there are consequences to sucking money that you don't have out of an S Corp! The RE will sit at negative until net profits or contributions bring it back up but the problem is if he makes profits he's gonna want to go sucking out the cash again, he just can't do it in excess of basis or he'll get his hands slapped AGAIN.


I'd love to see the answers to this. It is my opinion that it is a capital gain and the AAA account sits at zero.

Here is something I can not wrap my brain around, shareholder goes out and make a $60,000 profit in year one(before section 179). Buys a with borrowed money a $20,000 assets and write it all off. Then takes a distribution of $50,000. Does this mean he has a $10,000 capital gain for writing off the asset?



Depends on whether the conditions warranted if the S/H to got a basis in the loan or not. Usually a small sub S shareholder has to personally guarantee the loan or the bank won't loan it only to the corporation. Follow the basis. In your scenerio if the S/H didn't get a basis for the loan, then yes..........when he/she took the 50,000 out the basis was only 40,000 and yes.........you have a "sale of stock" ie: long term capital gain. There could be an ordering situation though if the distribution was considered taken out first. Not sure about that, i'd have to look it up and i'm sorry I just don't have the time right now. You might look and see if the distribution would be considered taken first before sect 179......i'm brain dead right now.

I am also braindead, and the day is young. But why on earth would the company claim 179 depreciation that would generate taxable income to the s/h?